2. Let f : x → Y be an invertible function. Show that the inverse of f–1 is f, i.e.(f–1)–1 = f.
Since inverse of a bijection is also a bijection.
∴ f–1 : Y → X is a bijection and hence invertible.
Since f–1 : Y → X is a bijection.
∴ (f–1)–1 : X → Y is also a bijection.
Let x be an arbitrary element of X such that f(x) = y. Then.
f–1 (y) = x [∵ f–1 is the inverse of f ]
⇒ (f–1)–1 (x) = y [∵(f–1)–1 is the inverse of f–1]
(f–1)–1 (x) = f(x) [∴ f(x) = y]
Since x is an arbitrary element of X.
∴ (f–1)–1 (x) = f(x) for all x ∈ X
∴ (f–1)–1 = f .